When it comes to valuations under DCF as taught in multiple places, a practice I disagree is the way the terminal value is calculated
Now terminal value impacts a good chunk of the final value so it’s important to ensure the logic behind it makes sense
Terminal value is generally taught to be estimated using an arthimatic progression formula
FCF * (1+g) / (R-g) where R is the required return and g is the long term growth rate
Here’s what I disagree with (I could be totally wrong and it’s just an opinion):
Predicting revenue / profits / FCF at 10-20% for 3/5/10 years and then it suddenly dropping to the long term terminal rate for perpetuity close to 5%
Following this is half the reason why most companies seem “overvalued” when done this way
And where common sense to be foregone for a “methodology”
(1/n)
Now terminal value impacts a good chunk of the final value so it’s important to ensure the logic behind it makes sense
Terminal value is generally taught to be estimated using an arthimatic progression formula
FCF * (1+g) / (R-g) where R is the required return and g is the long term growth rate
Here’s what I disagree with (I could be totally wrong and it’s just an opinion):
Predicting revenue / profits / FCF at 10-20% for 3/5/10 years and then it suddenly dropping to the long term terminal rate for perpetuity close to 5%
Following this is half the reason why most companies seem “overvalued” when done this way
And where common sense to be foregone for a “methodology”
(1/n)